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posted 2014-07-08 05:49:53 -0600

This is a hard one, so here's my answer. Suppose that $\textbf{r}(t)$ is a vector valued function of constant magnitude. I'm going to compute

$$\frac{d}{dt} (\textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}(t))$$

in two ways. First, the dot product rule states that

$$ \frac{d}{dt} (\textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}(t)) = \textbf{r}'(t) \cdot \textbf{r}(t) + \textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}'(t) = 2 \; \textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}'(t). $$

On the other hand, since $\textbf{r}(t)$ has constant magnitude, we know that $\textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}(t) = \||\textbf{r}(t)\||^2$ is constant. Thus,

$$\frac{d}{dt} (\textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}(t)) = 0.$$

As result, these two computations must be equal so we have

$$2 \; \textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}'(t) = 0,$$

which only happens if

$$\textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}'(t) = 0.$$

This is a hard one, so here's my answer. Suppose that $\textbf{r}(t)$ is a vector valued function of constant magnitude. I'm going to compute

$$\frac{d}{dt} (\textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}(t))$$

in two ways. First, the dot product rule states that

$$ \frac{d}{dt} (\textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}(t)) = \textbf{r}'(t) \cdot \textbf{r}(t) + \textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}'(t) = 2 \; \textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}'(t). $$

On the other hand, since $\textbf{r}(t)$ has constant magnitude, we know that $\textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}(t) = \||\textbf{r}(t)\||^2$ is constant. Thus,

$$\frac{d}{dt} (\textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}(t)) = 0.$$

As result, these two computations must be equal so we have

$$2 \; \textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}'(t) = 0,$$

which only happens if

$$\textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}'(t) = 0.$$

Examples

The standard example $\textbf{r}(t) = \langle \cos(t), \sin(t) \rangle$, which satisfies $\||\textbf{r}(t)\||=1$. Since, $\textbf{r}'(t) = \langle -\sin(t), \cos(t) \rangle$, it's easy to see that $\textbf{r}(t) \cdot \textbf{r}'(t)=0$. Geometrically, this states that the velocity vector of uniform circular motion is perpendicular to the position vector, which only makes all the sense in the world.

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It's important to realize, though, that the theorem is much more general than that. The motion need not be uniform at all.

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The motion could even be in 3D along a sphere.