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A simpler way?

Graham

**HOMEWORK SPOILER ALERT**

On the latest homework assignment, the trickiest one for me was the following:

\int_\ 160cos^4(20x)dx

I eventually found a solution, but it was a really long process:

\int_\ 160cos^4(20x)dx = 160 \int_\ cos^4(20x)dx

I did a little u- substitution:

\mathrm{let}\ u = 20x
\frac{du}{dx} = 20
\frac{dx}{du} = \frac{1}{20}
dx = \frac{1}{20} du
160 \int_\ cos^4(20x)dx = 160 \int_\ cos^4(u) \frac{1}{20} du
= 8 \int_\ cos^4(u)du

Then I used a half-angle formula:

8 \int_\ cos^4(u)du = 8 \int_\ (cos^2(u))^2du = 8 \int_\ (\frac{1}{2} (1 + cos(2u)))^2du
= 8 \int_\ \frac{1}{4} (1 + cos(2u))^2du
= 2 \int_\ (1 + cos(2u))^2du

Then I did another u- substitution, only I couldn’t use u this time:

\mathrm{let}\ q = 2u
\frac{dq}{du} = 2
\frac{du}{dq} = \frac{1}{2}
du = \frac{1}{2} dq
2 \int_\ (1 + cos(2u))^2du = 2 \int_\ (1 + cos(q))^2 * \frac{1}{2}dq
= \int_\ (1 + cos(q))^2 dq

I expanded (1 + cos(q))^2:

\int_\ (1 + cos(q))^2 dq = \int_\ (1 + 2cos(q) +cos^2(q)) dq

And then used the same half-angle formula again:

\int_\ (1 + 2cos(q) +cos^2(q)) dq = \int_\ (1 + 2cos(q) +\frac{1}{2}(1+cos(2q)))dq

And then converted that integral into the sum of two integrals:

\int_\ (1 + 2cos(q) +\frac{1}{2}(1+cos(2q)))dq = \int_\ (1 + 2cos(q))dq + \int_\ \frac{1}{2}(1+cos(2q))dq
= \int_\ (1 + 2cos(q))dq + \frac{1}{2}\int_\ (1+cos(2q))dq

I integrated the first part:

\int_\ (1 + 2cos(q))dq = q + 2sin(q)

And then did yet another u- substitution on the second part:

\mathrm{let}\ r = 2q
\frac{dr}{dq} = 2
\frac{dq}{dr} = \frac{1}{2}
dq = \frac{1}{2}dr
\int_\ (1+cos(2q))dq = \int_\ (1+cos(r))\frac{1}{2}dr

I could finally finish integrating:

\int_\ (1+cos(r))\frac{1}{2}dr
= \frac{1}{2}\int_\ (1+cos(r))dr = \frac{1}{2}(r+sin(r))

And then translated r back into q and q back into u and u back into x:

q + 2sin(q) +(\frac{1}{2}*\frac{1}{2}(r+sin(r)))
= q + 2sin(q) +\frac{1}{4}(r+sin(r))
= q + 2sin(q) +\frac{1}{4}(2q+sin(2q))
= 2u + 2sin(2u) +\frac{1}{4}(2(2u)+sin(2(2u)))
= 2u + 2sin(2u) +\frac{1}{4}(4u + sin(4u))
= 2u + 2sin(2u) +\frac{1}{4}4u + \frac{1}{4}sin(4u)
= 2u + 2sin(2u) + u + \frac{sin(4u)}{4}
= 3u + 2sin(2u) + \frac{sin(4u)}{4}
= 3(20x) + 2sin(2(20x)) + \frac{sin(4(20x))}{4}
= 60x + 2sin(40x) + \frac{sin(80x)}{4}

\ \ \ \ \ \ This was the correct answer, but the method was a monstrosity of both length and sheer ugliness. I shudder to imagine how long this kind of process would have taken if the integral used cos^8 instead of cos^4. \ My question to fellow students: Did you - or could you - solve this integral in a more elegant ^* but equally rigorous way?

^* By ‘more elegant’ I don’t mean ‘using more mental math’. I mean actually simpler and more efficient.

mark

I think you should be able to do mini u-substitution problems involving first order polynomials without writing the substitution step out explicitly. That is, you should know that

\text{if } \: \int f(x) \, dx = F(x), \: \text{ then } \: \int f(mx+b)\, dx = \frac{1}{m}F(mx+b).

For example,

\int \left(2x+1\right)^{100} \, dx = \frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{101}\left(2x+1\right)^{101} + C

and

\int_0^1 \sin(\pi x) \, dx = -\frac{1}{\pi} \cos(\pi x)\Big|_0^1 = -\left(-\frac{1}{\pi}\right) - \left(-\frac{1}{\pi}\right) = \frac{2}{\pi}.

Doing this should make your problem much shorter, since you don’t need to write out every substitution step.

Beyond that, the essential step of expressing the cosine term as

\cos^4(mx) = \left(\cos^2(mx)\right)^2 = \left(\frac{1}{2}(1+\cos(2mx))\right)^2

is definitely the way to go.