I was wondering what the solution to number 4 on the last exam is? I got partial credit, but I'm still feeling uneasy with my answer.
$$ \langle f,g \rangle = \int_0^1 f(x)g(x)\,dx$$
Given any three such functions $f,g,$ and $h$, prove that
$$ \langle f - g, h \rangle = \langle f,h \rangle - \langle g,h \rangle. $$